Tag: FBR

FBR, Pakistan’s national tax collecting agency, plays a crucial role in the country’s economy. Pakistan Revenue is committed to providing readers with the latest updates and developments regarding FBR activities.

  • Correction in computerized CVT payment receipt allowed

    Correction in computerized CVT payment receipt allowed

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has allowed correction in computerized payment receipt (CPR) for capital value tax (CVT). In this regard, the FBR amended the procedure.

    The FBR issued an addendum on Thursday to the e-procedure that was notified on December 30, 2019. Previously, the FBR granted correction in CPR for income tax, sales tax and federal excise duty.

    However, through the addendum the FBR said correction of CVT CPR shall only be allowed in respect of CVT paid on immovable property situated within territorial limits of Islamabad Capital Territory.

    Further, the FBR said that heads of account (NAM) shall not be changed in the CPR except for CVT paid on immovable property situated within territorial limits of Islamabad Capital Territory.

  • FBR sets up departmental enquiry committee

    FBR sets up departmental enquiry committee

    ISLAMABAD: A departmental enquiry committee of the Federal Boar of Revenue (FBR) has been constituted to ascertain admissibility of financial benefits for officials removed from services but reinstated on court orders.

    An office order issued on Thursday stated that the departmental enquiry committee of FBR had been constituted to ascertain admissibility of financial benefits, during the period of dismissal / removal from service, after reinstatement of officers/officials back into service as per Appellate/court orders.

    Following persons are in the committee:

    Member (Admin), FBR HQ, Islamabad: chairman

    DFA, FBR (HQ), Islamabad: member

    Chief Management (Customs/IR) concerned: member

    Secretary litigation concerned: member

    Secretary management (customs/IR) concerned: member

    The committee shall have the following terms of reference:

    To examine cases of reinstatement into service after dismissal/removal; in light of FR-54

    To make appropriate recommendations under the Rules

  • Rate of advance tax on sale, purchase of immovable properties

    Rate of advance tax on sale, purchase of immovable properties

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has updated rate of advance tax on sale and purchase of immovable properties during tax year 2021 (July 01, 2020 to June 30, 2021).

    The FBR issued Income Tax Ordinance, 2001 (Updated up to June 30, 2020) after incorporating amendments introduced through Finance Act, 2020.

    The FBR updated the rate of tax to be collected under section 236C of Income Tax Ordinance, 2001. The advance tax rate shall be one percent of the gross amount of the consideration received.

    The rate of advance tax shall be two percent on a person for not appearing on Active Taxpayers List (ATL).

    Following is the text of Section 236C of the Ordinance:

    236C. Advance Tax on sale or transfer of immovable Property.—(1) Any person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer of any immovable property shall at the time of registering, recording or attesting the transfer shall collect from the seller or transferor advance tax at the rate specified in Division X of Part IV of the First Schedule:

    Explanation,—For removal of doubt, it is clarified that the person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer includes person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer for local authority, housing authority, housing society, co-operative society and registrar of properties.

    Provided that this sub-section shall not apply to a seller, being the dependant of a Shaheed belonging to Pakistan Armed Forces or a person who dies while in the service of the Pakistan Armed Forces or the service of Federal or Provincial Government, in respect of first sale of immovable property acquired from or allotted by the Federal Government or Provincial Government or any authority duly certified by the official allotment authority, and the property acquired or allotted is in recognition of or for services rendered by the Shaheed or the person who dies in service.

    (2) The Advance tax collected under sub-section (1) shall be adjustable.

    Provided that where immovable property referred to in sub-section (1) is acquired and disposed of within the same tax year, the tax collected under this section shall be minimum tax.

    (3) Advance tax under sub-section (1) shall not be collected if the immovable property is held for a period exceeding four years.

    The FBR also updated rate of advance tax on purchase of immovable properties. The rate of tax to be collected under section 236K shall be one percent of the fair market value.

    The advance tax rate shall be two percent on a person for not appearing on Active Taxpayers List (ATL).

    The text of Section 236K of Income Tax Ordinance, 2001:

    236K. Advance tax on purchase or transfer of immovable property.—(1)Any person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer of any immovable property shall at the time of registering, recording or attesting the transfer shall collect from the purchaser or transferee advance tax at the rate specified in Division XVIII of Part IV of the First Schedule.

    Explanation,—For removal of doubt, it is clarified that the person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer includes person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer for local authority, housing authority, housing society, co-operative society and registrar of properties.

    (2) The advance tax collected under sub-section (1) shall be adjustable.

    (3) Any person responsible for collecting payments in installments for purchase or allotment of any immovable property where the transfer is to be effected after making payment of all installments, shall at the time of collecting installments collect from the allotee or transferee advance tax at the rate specified in Division XVIII of Part IV of the First Schedule.

    (4) Nothing contained in this section shall apply to a scheme introduced by the Federal Government, or Provincial Government or an Authority established under a Federal or Provincial law for expatriate Pakistanis:

    “Provided that the mode of payment by the expatriate Pakistanis in the said scheme or schemes shall be in the foreign exchange remitted from outside Pakistan through normal banking channels.”

  • Revenue grows by 3.8 percent; FBR collects Rs1,337 billion in four months

    Revenue grows by 3.8 percent; FBR collects Rs1,337 billion in four months

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has achieved 3.8 percent growth in revenue collection during first four months of the current fiscal year, a statement said on Monday.

    The FBR collected Rs1,337 billion during July – October 2020/2021 as compared with Rs1,288 billion collected in the corresponding period of the last fiscal year.

    The breakup of the collection revealed the FBR collected Rs470 billion as income tax, Rs643 billion as sales tax / federal excise duty and Rs81 billion as customs duty during first four months of the current fiscal year.

    The gross collection during the first four months was at Rs1,400 billion as compared with Rs1,323 billion in the corresponding period of the last fiscal year.

    The FBR collected Rs333 billion during the month of October 2020 as compared with Rs325 billion in the same month of the last year, showing only 2.46 percent growth.

    The FBR said that it had issued refunds worth Rs128 billion during first four months of the current fiscal year as compared with Rs52 billion in the same months of the last year.

    The FBR issued Rs15 billion in October 2020 as compared with Rs4.5 billion issued in the same month of the last year. The FBR said that despite significant increase in issuance of refunds the collection of revenue was higher in the month of October 2020. The higher amount of refund was released in order to improve economic activities.

    The collection of revenue at import stage fell by 2 percent. However, the collection from domestic sources increased by 13 percent.

    The FBR said that during the anti-smuggling increased significantly during the first four months of the current fiscal year. In the anti-smuggling activities, the authorities seized goods worth Rs21.48 billion during the period under review as compared with Rs13.4 billion in the corresponding period of the last fiscal year.

  • FBR issues criteria for granting Authorized Economic Operator status

    FBR issues criteria for granting Authorized Economic Operator status

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has issued eligibility conditions and criteria for grant of Authorized Economic Operator (AEO) status.

    The FBR issued SRO 1114(I)/2020 to notify rules related to Authorized Economic Operators. The economic operator means any entity like a legal person, undertaking or establishment which in the course of business is involved in activities covered under the Customs Act, 1969 or rules made thereunder.

    Following are the eligibility conditions and criteria for grant of AEO status under Rule 744 of Customs Rules 2001.

    1. Eligibility conditions and criteria for grant of AEO status.-(l) Any economic operator applying for AEO status must fulfill the following criteria in order to qualify for an AEO authorization-

    (a) have an appropriate record of compliance with customs requirements;

    (b) have a satisfactory system of managing commercial and, where appropriate, transport records, which allows appropriate customs controls;

    (c) demonstrate, where appropriate, proven financial solvency;

    (d) practical standards of competence or professional qualifications directly related to the activity carried out; and

    (e) maintenance of appropriate security and safety standards.

    (2) Eligibility to apply for AEO certificate-

    (a) any entity involved in the international supply chain that undertakes Customs related activity in Pakistan can apply for AEO status. Such entity may include exporters, importers, logistic providers such as carriers, airlines, freight forwarders, etc., custodians or terminal operators, Customs House Agents and Warehouse Owners, port operators, authorized couriers, stevedores etc. In case of importers and exporters, at the time of filing of AEO application, annual turnover of the business must be 2.5 million USD or above while applying for gold or platinum status;

    (b) businesses that are not involved in Customs related work or activities will not be entitled to apply. Thus banks, insurance companies, consultants and the like categories of businesses shall not be eligible for AEO status;

    (c) application for AEO status will only cover the legal entity of the applicant and shall not automatically apply to a group of companies;

    (d) there is no provision to grant AEO status to specific site, division or branch of legal entity of the applicant. The application must cover all the activities and locations of the legal entity involved in the international supply chain and the prescribed criteria will be applied across all those activities and locations;

    (e) in order to apply -for AEO status, the office of the applicant must be established in Pakistan. For this purpose, the applicant should provide evidence which may include-

    (i) NTN and STRN certificates;

    (ii) a certificate of registration issued by the Registrar of Companies;

    (iii) details of places and locations where goods are being handled, e.g. loading, unloading, storage etc., in the course of supply to or from international supply chain; and

    (iv) proof that the business has its own accounts;

    (f) the applicant should have business activities for at least three financial years preceding the date of application. However, in exceptional cases, on the basis of physical verification of internal controls of a newly established business entity, the Director or Collector AEO may consider it for certification;

    (g) an AEO status shall apply only to the legal entity applying for such status in its own capacity and covering only its role in the international supply chain, and will not confer similar status on its business partners or clients who will need to apply separately for that status;

    (3) Legal Compliance-

    (a) an entity must have a clean tax profile which means that there should be no adjudged arrears during last three financial years involving serious violations of law including fraud, forgery, outright smuggling, illegal removal of goods, illegal claim of duty drawback or sales tax refunds, illegal availing of tax exemptions;

    (b) there should be no case wherein prosecution has been launched or is being contemplated against the applicant or its senior management;

    (c) if the quantum of disputed duty demanded or drawback demanded or sought to be denied, as adjudged under the Act other than those mentioned in clause (a) and (b) during the last three financial years, is less than ten percent of the total duty paid and drawback claimed during the same period, a review would be taken of the nature of cases and decision for eligibility may be taken by the Director or Collector AEO after taking into account all aspects and circumstances of the disputed cases.

    Explanation: for clauses (a), (b) and (c) the cases where the proceedings have been dropped or decided in favour of the applicant by the adjudicating or appellate authorities shall not be considered;

    (d) where applicable, the applicant has satisfactory procedures in place for the handling of imports and exports connected to prohibitions and restrictions including measures to distinguish goods subject to the prohibitions or restrictions from other goods and measures to ensure compliance with those prohibitions and restrictions;

    (e) an applicant will also need to demonstrate that he has-

    (i) procedures in place to identify and disclose any irregularities or errors to the Customs authorities or, where appropriate, other regulatory bodies; and

    (ii) taken appropriate remedial action when irregularities or errors are identified;

    (f) once an error has been identified, the applicant is expected to take steps to ensure that they do not happen again or, at least, to ensure that they are immediately rectified if they do arise. Failure to take such steps could count against applicant;

    (g) in case of applicant being a sole proprietorship, the criteria laid down in clauses (a) to (f) shall be considered to be fulfilled if, over the last three years, the applicant and where applicable the person in charge of the applicant’s customs matters have not committed any serious infringement or repeated infringements of customs legislation and taxation rules and have had no record of serious criminal offences relating to their economic activity;

    (h) in case of applicant not being a sole proprietorship, the criterion laid down in clauses (a) to (f) shall be considered to be fulfilled where, over the last, three years, none of the following persons has committed a serious infringements of customs legislation and taxation rules or has had a record of serious criminal offences relating to his economic activity;

    (i) the applicant;

    (ii) the persons in charge of the applicant company or exercising control over its management; and

    (iii) the person in charge of the applicant’s customs matters:

    Provided that the criterion referred to in sub-rules (a) to (f) may be considered to be fulfilled where the regulatory directorate or collectorate considers an infringement to be of minor importance, in relation to the number or size of the related operations, and the customs authority has no doubt as to the good faith of the applicant;

    (i) in case the applicant entity is established for less than three years as a result of a corporate re-organization, the customs authorities shall consider the customs activities performed by the pre-existing company provided that they are unchanged;

    (j) the applicant or the person in charge of the applicant’s customs matters complies with one of the following practical standards of competence-

    (i) a proven practical experience of a minimum of three years in customs matters; and

    (ii) the applicant or the person in charge of the applicant’s customs matters has successfully completed training covering customs legislation consistent with and relevant to the extent of his or her involvement in customs related activities, provided by any of the following, namely:-

    (A) a customs training authority providing such qualification;

    (B) a national or foreign educational establishment recognized by the customs authorities, for the purposes of providing such qualification; and

    (C) a national or foreign professional or trade association recognized by the customs authorities for the purpose of providing such qualification;

    (k) it should be noted that the person in charge of the applicant’s customs matters can be an employee of the applicant or a contracted person. The applicant has to prove that the contracted person is actually the one in charge of the applicant’s customs matters;

    (l) in case of outsourced customs activities, it is sufficient that either the applicant, the applicant’s employee in charge of customs matters or contracted person fulfils the criterion. If the applicant outsources its customs activities to more than one contracted person, the criterion must be fulfilled by all of them; and

    (m) it should be noted that when the applicant has an internal office or department involved in customs matters which allows the supervision and control on the customs formalities that have been outsourced, the criterion can be fulfilled by the applicant.

    (4) Managing commercial and (where appropriate) transport records.-

    (a) the applicant must have a satisfactory system of managing commercial and, where appropriate, transport records. To enable the regulatory directorate or collectorate to establish that the applicant indeed has such a system, the applicant shall-

    (i) maintain an accounting system consistent with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) or International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) which facilitates audit-based Customs control;

    (ii) have an administrative set up which corresponds to the type and size of business and which is suitable for the management of the flow of goods and have internal controls capable of detecting illegal or irregular transactions;

    (iii) wherever applicable, have satisfactory procedures in place for the handling of licenses and authorizations connected to export or import;

    (iv) have satisfactory procedures in place for archiving of the company’s records and information, and also for protection against the loss of information;

    (v) ensure that employees are made aware of the need to inform the Customs authorities whenever compliance difficulties are discovered and establish suitable contacts to inform the Customs authorities of such occurrences;

    (vi) have satisfactory procedures for verifying the accuracy of Customs declarations; and

    (vii) have appropriate information technology security measures to protect the applicant’s computer system from unauthorized intrusion and to secure the applicant’s documentation;

    (b) allow the customs authority physical access to its accounting systems and where applicable, to its commercial and transport records; and

    (c) allow the customs authority electronic access to its accounting systems and where applicable to its commercial and transport records where those systems or records are kept electronically;

    (d) have satisfactory procedures in place for the archiving of its records and information and for protection against the loss of information; and

    (e) have appropriate security measures in place to protect the applicant’s computer system from un-authorised intrusion and to secure the applicant’s documentation.

    (5) Financial solvency

    (a) financial solvency shall mean a good financial standing which is sufficient to fulfill the commitments of the applicant, vyith due regard to the characteristics of the type of business activity. Generally, consistent profitability of a business (importers or exporters), having annual turnover of 2.5 million USD or above, will be considered financially solvent, however, there may be exceptions in certain cases when sisters companies operate and consistent profitability of one business provides financial support to the related business which might not be profitable directly, but it contributes to the profitability of the other related business. For instance, a marketing company and a manufacturing company can operate as sister concerns in such a way that the marketing company only incurs expenditure while promoting sales of the manufacturing company and the considerable or consistent profits made by the manufacturing company, then, render both sister-concern companies as financial solvent. Thus, in case of group of companies, over all model of operations and profitability needs to be observed while deciding the condition of financial solvency;

    (b) the applicant’s financial solvency shall be deemed to have been met if his solvency can be proven for the last three years. If the applicant has been established for less than three years, his financial solvency shall be judged on the basis of records and information that are available;

    (c) evidence of financial solvency can be provided through any of the following, namely:-

    (i) a statement from the applicant’s auditors or an audited report;

    (ii) a copy of their finalised accounts if the accounts have not been audited;

    (iii) evidence from a bank or financial institution;

    (iv) a guarantee from a parent company regarding financial support;

    (v) a list of any personal assets that are used to support the solvency of the business;

    (vi) official records of insolvencies, liquidations and administrations;

    (vii) the record for the payment of customs duties and all other duties, taxes or charges which are collected on or in connection with the importation or exportation of goods during the last three years;

    (viii) the published financial statements and balance sheets of the applicant covering the last three years in order to analyse the applicant’s ability to pay their legal debts;

    (ix) draft accounts or management accounts, in particular any interim reports and the latest cash flow, balance sheet and profit and loss forecasts approved by the directors or partners or sole proprietor, in particular where the latest published financial statements do not provide the necessary evidence of the current financial position or the applicant has a newly established business;

    (x) the applicant’s business case where the applicant is financed by a loan from a financial institution and confirmation from that institution;

    (xi) the conclusions of credit rating agencies or credit protection associations;

    (xii) other evidence which the applicant may provide, for example a guarantee from a parent (or other group) company that demonstrates that the applicant is financially solvent; and

    (xiii) higher annual turnovers with consistent net profits will be an important indication that a business is financially viable and solvent; and

    (d) an applicant must be financially solvent during the three financial years preceding the date of application. The applicant should not be listed currently as insolvent, or in liquidation or bankruptcy. Further, the applicant should not have defaulted in payment of due Customs duties during the past three years. The applicants must submit an undertaking regarding its solvency and a Solvency Certificate issued by the Statutory Auditor of the applicant.

    (6) Safety and security- The applicant must have in place appropriate internal controls and measures to ensure safety and security of applicant’s business and supply chain, in addition to any specific legal requirements that may be applicable to the business. In order to satisfy the requirements of AEO status, the applicant shall need to ensure security of procedures, cargo, conveyances, premises, personnel and business partners. The applicant’s security and safety standards shall be considered to be appropriate if the following conditions are fulfilled, namely:-

    (a) Procedural Security-

    (i) in order to ensure security of the international supply chain, the applicant must have in place appropriate internal controls and measures to ensure safety and security of procedures relating to applicant’s business and his supply chain. With this view, following criteria should be fulfilled by the applicant;

    (ii) the applicant must develop and maintain a security policy and procedure manual containing detailed guidelines on_ procedures to be followed to preserve the integrity of the cargo while in custody, during loading and unloading from transport conveyance and during transport. The manual should also stipulate how seals are to be controlled and affixed to cargo and transport conveyances;

    (iii) security measures must be in place to ensure the integrity and security of processes relevant to the transportation, handling, and storage of cargo in the supply chain;

    (iv) proper documentation of management procedure must be in place to ensure that all documentation used in the clearing of cargo is legible, complete, accurate and protected against the exchange, loss of introduction of erroneous information;

    (v) procedure must be in place to ensure that information received from business partners is reported accurately and timely as well as declared in the time limit regulated by Customs; and

    (vi) procedure must be in place to ensure that-

    (A) import and export cargo are reconciled against the information on the bill of lading;

    (B) the weights, labels, marks and piece count of the import or export cargo are accurately indicated;

    (C) import and export cargo are verified against purchase or delivery orders;

    (D) drivers delivering or receiving cargo are positively identified before cargo is received or released; and

    (E) all shortages, overages, and other significant discrepancies or anomalies must be resolved or to be investigated appropriately;

    (b) premises security, in order to ensure security of the international supply chain, the applicant must ensure that the buildings to be used in connection with the operations to be covered by the certificate are constructed of materials which resist unlawful entry and provide protection against unlawful intrusion. In addition, the applicant must ensure that appropriate access control measures are in place to prevent unauthorized access to loading, unloading areas and cargo areas. The following criteria shall be fulfilled by the applicant, namely:-

    (i) buildings must be secure against unlawful entry;

    (ii) all gates, fences and windows must be secured with locking devices or alternative access monitoring or control measures;

    (iii) authorized personnel must control the issuance of locks and keys;

    (iv) adequate internal and external lighting must be provided especially for entrances and exits, cargo handling and storage areas, fence lines and parking areas;

    (v) gates through which vehicles or personnel enter or exit must be manned, monitored or otherwise controlled. Vehicles accessing restricted areas must be parked in approved area and .their license plate numbers furnished to Customs upon request;

    (vi) only properly identified and authorized persons, vehicles and goods may be permitted access;

    (vii) access to document or cargo storage areas may be restricted;

    (viii) there should be appropriate security systems for access control;

    (ix) restricted areas should be clearly identified;

    (x) integrity of structures and systems must be periodically inspected;

    (xi) perimeter fencing should enclose the areas around cargo handling and storage facilities;

    (xii) clear demarcation within a cargo handling structure should be created to segregate domestic, international, high value and hazardous cargo;

    (xiii) the number of gates should be kept to the minimum necessary for proper access and safety;

    (xiv) unauthorized vehicles should be prohibited from parking in or adjacent, to cargo handling and storage areas;

    (xv) a large manufacturer might have to have a perimeter wall or fence, security guards, and CCTV; and

    (xvi) cameras etc. while for a customs agent operating from a single room in a building with locks on doors, windows and filing cabinets it may be sufficient to have a detailed procedure for access control including responsibilities;

    (c) Cargo security- in order to ensure security of the international supply chain, the applicant must have in place appropriate measures for the handling of goods which include protection against the introduction, exchange or loss of any material and tampering with cargo units. The following criteria shall be fulfilled by the applicant, namely:-

    (i) only properly identified and authorized persons should have access to the cargo;

    (ii) integrity of cargo should be ensured by permanent monitoring or keeping in a safe, locked area;

    (iii) all seals must meet the international standards for high security seals, for containerized cargo, only PAS or ISO 17712 seals shall be used, however in case of loose cargo, security seals compatible with international standards shall be used;

    (iv) the integrity of container seals should be checked by the authorized person by following the procedure prescribed in the security policy manual;

    (v) only authorized personnel should distribute container seals and safeguard their appropriate and legitimate use;

    (vi) when appropriate to the type of cargo container used, a seven-point inspection process is recommended: front wall, left side, right side, floor, ceiling or roof, inside or outside doors, outside or undercarriage;

    (vii) appropriate procedures should be laid down on measures to be taken when an unauthorized access or tampering is discovered;

    (viii) goods should be uniformly marked or stored in designated areas and procedures should exist to weigh and tally them and also to compare these against transport documents, purchase or sales orders and customs documents;

    (ix) internal control procedures should exist when discrepancies or any irregularities are discovered;

    (x) there must be designated areas for all stages. Goods shall not be left unsupervised outside of their designated areas; and

    (xi) if the company uses container seals, they must be stored, handled and fixed appropriately. They shall be stored under lock and key, removal recorded, and fixed by two persons.

    (d) Conveyance security- In order to ensure security of the international supply chain, the applicant must ensure that the conveyances to be used in connection with the operations to be covered by the certificate are handled in a manner which ensures security of the cargo. With this view, the applicant shall

    (i) ensure to the extent possible that all conveyances used for the transportation of cargo within the supply chain are capable of being effectively secured;

    (ii) ensure to the extent possible that all operators of conveyances used for transport of cargo are trained to maintain the security of the conveyance and the cargo at all times while in its custody;

    (iii) require operators to report actual or suspicious incident to designated security department staff of the applicant company as well as to maintain records of these reports, which should be available to the regulatory directorate or collectorate;

    (iv) ensure that potential places of concealment of illegal goods on conveyances are regularly inspected;

    (v) ensure that transporters make sure that conveyance integrity is maintained while the conveyance is en-route transporting cargo to export and import points or import or transit containers by utilizing a tracking and monitoring activity log or records;

    (vi) ensure that pre-determined routes are identified by the dispatcher, and procedures must consist of random route checks along with documenting and verifying the length of time between the loading point or trailer pickup and the delivery destinations;

    (vii) ensure that drivers must notify the dispatcher of any route delays due to weather, traffic and re-routing; and

    (viii) ensure that the management of transporters must perform a documented, periodic, and random verification process to ensure the logs are maintained and conveyance tracking and monitoring procedures are being followed and enforced;

    (e) Personnel security: In order to secure the international supply chain, the applicant must conduct, as far as possible, security screening of prospective employees to be employed in security sensitive positions, and carry out periodic background checks. With this view, following criteria should be fulfilled by the applicant, namely:-

    (i) all reasonable precautions must be taken when recruiting new staff to verify that they are not previously convicted of security-related, Customs or other criminal offences;

    (ii) periodic background checks must be conducted on employees working in security sensitive positions;

    (iii) employee identification procedures should require all employees to carry proper identification that uniquely identifies the employee and organization;

    (iv) procedures to identify, record and deal with unauthorized or unidentified persons, such as photo identification and sign-in registers for visitors etc. must be ensured at all points of entry; and

    (v) procedures must be in place to expeditiously remove identification and access to premises and information for employees whose employment is terminated;

    (f) Business partner security: In order to secure the international supply chain, the applicant must have implemented measures to ensure a clear identification of his business partners. With this view, following criteria should be fulfilled by the applicant, namely:-

    (i) the applicant must have written and verifiable process, including the capability of financial soundness and compliance with the safety requirement set by the contracts as well as the capability of detection and correction of safety defects, for the selection of business partners;

    (ii) for those business partners having AEO certification, the applicant must get those business partners’ copies of certification;

    (iii) for non-AEO partners, the applicant must get written confirmation of meeting AEO equivalent security criteria. Such business partners must have one of the following written documents demonstrating their compliance with security criteria, namely:-

    (A) contractual document;

    (B) a completed self-assessment security questionnaire from the applicant;

    (C) a written statement from the business partner demonstrating their compliance with AEO security criteria provided under these rules;.

    (D) senior business partner officer attesting to compliance; and

    (E) documents from the business partners demonstrating their compliance with and equivalent and accredited security program administered by a foreign Customs authority; and

    (iv) periodic reviews of business partner’s processes and facilities must be conducted based on risk, and must maintain the security standards required by the applicant; and

    (g) Security Training and Threat Awareness,-In order to secure the international supply chain, the applicant must ensure that its concerned employees actively participate in security awareness programmes. With this view, following criteria should be fulfilled by the applicant, namely:-

    (i) the applicant should ensure that-

    (A) a threat awareness program is established and maintained for employees to foster awareness of the threat at each point in the supply chain;

    (B) employees are aware of the procedures the company has in place to address a situation and how to report it; and

    (C) specific training is offered to assist employees in maintaining cargo integrity, recognizing internal conspiracies and protecting access controls;

    (ii) supply chain security training of employees must include the following items, namely:-

    (A) security policy of the company;

    (B) potential risk to internal security of the company;

    (C) maintaining cargo security;

    (D) access control measures of the company;

    (E) identifying and reporting suspicious cargo and personnel; and

    (F) conveyance management and cargo security for conveyance management personnel;

    (iii) Records of security training must be maintained and made available for verification by the AEO Team and the Customs.

    (7) Risk based Management Systemfa)

    (a) a risk based management system shall be in place, which shall allow for-

    (i) a continual cycle of identifying needs or requirements;

    (ii) evaluating the best means for complying with the requirements;

    (iii) implementing a managed process for applying the selected management actions;

    (iv) monitoring the performance of the system; and

    (v) maintaining evidence of the application of processes used to meet business objectives, and identify functional or business improvement opportunities, including reporting mechanisms on gaps, incidental mistakes and possible structural errors;

    (b) above aspects shall be in place within the framework of complying with the legal and regulatory requirements to which the organization subscribes or is required to comply;

    (c) risk and threat assessment should cover all risks relevant for AEO status, keeping in mind the role of the economic operator in the supply chain and shall include,-namely:

    (i) security and safety threats to premises and goods;

    (ii) fiscal threats;

    (iii) reliability of information related to customs operations and logistics of goods;

    (iv) visible audit trail and prevention and detection of fraud and errors; and

    (v) contractual arrangements for business partners in the supply chain; and

    (d) the risk and threat assessment for security and safety purposes should cover all the premises that are relevant to the economic operator’s customs related activities.

  • Tax Year 2021: rate of tax on cash withdrawal from banks

    Tax Year 2021: rate of tax on cash withdrawal from banks

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has updated rate of income tax to be deducted at the time of cash withdrawal from banks during tax year 2021 (July 01, 2020 to June 30, 2021).

    The FBR issued Income Tax Ordinance, 2001 (updated up to June 30, 2020) after incorporating amendments brought through Finance Act, 2020.

    The FBR updated the rate of tax to be deducted under section 231A of Income Tax Ordinance shall be 0.6 percent of the cash amount withdrawn, for the person whose name is not appearing in the active taxpayers’ list.

    The text of Section 231A is as follow:

    231A. Cash withdrawal from a bank.—(1) Every banking company shall deduct tax at the rate specified in Division VI of Part IV of the First Schedule, if the payment for cash withdrawal, or the sum total of the payments for cash withdrawal in a day, exceeds fifty thousand rupees.

    “Explanation.- For removal of doubt, it is clarified that the said fifty thousand rupees shall be aggregate withdrawals from all the bank accounts in a single day.”

    The FBR also updated the rate of tax to be deducted under section 231AA shall be at the rate of 0.6 percent of the transactions for the person whose name is not appearing in the active taxpayers’ list.

    Following is the text of Section 231AA of the Ordinance is:

    231AA. Advance tax on transactions in bank.— (1) Every banking company, non-banking financial institution, exchange company or any authorized dealer of foreign exchange shall collect advance tax at the time of sale against cash of any instrument, including Demand Draft, Pay Order, CDR, STDR, SDR, RTC, or any other instrument of bearer nature or on receipt of cash on cancellation of any of these instruments.

    (2) Every banking company, non-banking financial institution, exchange company or any authorized dealer of foreign exchange shall collect advance tax at the time of transfer of any sum against cash through online transfer, telegraphic transfer, mail transfer or any other mode of electronic transfer.

    (3) The advance tax under this section shall be collected at the rate specified in Division VIA of Part IV of the First Schedule, where the sum total of payments for transactions mentioned in sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) as the case may be, exceed twenty-five thousand rupees in a day.

  • Income tax rates on telephone, internet usage

    Income tax rates on telephone, internet usage

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has updated rates of income tax on usage of telephone and internet services by phone subscribers during tax year 2021 (July 30, 202 to June 30, 2021).

    The FBR issued Income Tax Ordinance, 2001 (updated June 30, 2020) after incorporating amendments brought through Finance Act, 2020.

    The FBR also updated following rates of collection of tax under section 236 of the Income Tax Ordinance, —

    (a)In the case of a telephone subscriber (other than mobile phone subscriber) where the amount of monthly bills exceeds Rs100010 percent of the exceeding amount of bill
    (b)In the case of subscriber of internet, mobile telephone and pre-paid internet or telephone card12.5 percent of the amount of bill or sales price of internet pre-paid card or prepaid telephone card or sale of units through any electronic medium or whatever form.

    Following is the text of Section 236 of Income Tax Ordinance, 2001:

    236. Telephone and internet users.- (1) Advance tax at the rates specified in Part IV of the First Schedule shall be collected on the amount of –

    (a) telephone bill of a subscriber;

    (b) prepaid cards for telephones;

    (c) sale of units through any electronic medium or whatever form; and

    (d) internet bill of a subscriber; and

    (e) prepaid cards for internet.

    (2) The person preparing the telephone or internet bill shall charge advance tax under sub-section (1) in the manner telephone or internet charges are charged.

    (3) The person issuing or selling prepaid cards for telephones or internet shall collect advance tax under sub-section (1) from the purchasers at the time of issuance or sale of cards.

    (3A) The person issuing or selling units through any electronic medium or whatever form shall collect advance tax under sub-section (1) from the purchaser at the time of issuance of sale of units.

    (4) Advance tax under this section shall not be collected from Government, a foreign diplomat, a diplomatic mission in Pakistan, or a person who produces a certificate from the Commissioner that his income during the tax year is exempt from tax.

  • Income tax rates on electricity consumption

    Income tax rates on electricity consumption

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has updated rates of income tax on consumption of electricity for the tax year 2021 (July 01, 2020 to June 30, 2021).

    The FBR issued Income Tax Ordinance, 2001 (updated up to June 30, 2020) after incorporating amendments brought through Finance Act, 2020.

    The FBR updated the following rates of income tax on electricity consumption under Section 235 of the Ordinance:

    Rate of collection of tax under section 235 where the gross amount of electricity bill,

    (a) does not exceed Rs. 400 – the tax rate shall be zero

    (b) exceeds Rs. 400 but does not exceed Rs. 600 – the tax amount shall be Rs. 80

    (c) exceeds Rs. 600 but does not exceed Rs. 800 – the tax amount shall be Rs. 100

    (d) exceeds Rs. 800 but does not exceed Rs. 1000 – the tax amount shall be Rs. 160

    (e) exceeds Rs. 1000 but does not exceed Rs. 1500 – the tax amount shall be Rs. 300

    (f) exceeds Rs. 1500 but does not exceed Rs. 3000 – the tax amount shall be Rs. 350

    (g) exceeds Rs. 3000 but does not exceed Rs. 4500 – the tax amount shall be Rs. 450

    (h) exceeds Rs. 4500 but does not exceed Rs. 6000 – the tax amount shall be Rs. 500

    (i) exceeds Rs. 6000 but does not exceed Rs. 10000 – the tax amount shall be Rs. 650

    (j) exceeds Rs. 10000 but does not exceed Rs. 15000 – the tax amount shall be Rs. 1000

    (k) exceeds Rs. 15000 but does not exceed Rs. 20000 – the tax amount shall be Rs. 1500

    (l) exceeds Rs. 20000 – the tax amount shall be:

    (i) at the rate of 12 percent for commercial consumers;

    (ii) at the rate of 5 per cent for industrial consumers.

    The text of Section 235 is as:

    235. Electricity consumption.- (1) There shall be collected advance tax at the rates specified in Division IV of Part-IV of the First Schedule on the amount of electricity bill of a commercial or industrial consumer.

    (2) The person preparing electricity consumption bill shall charge advance tax under sub-section (1) in the manner electricity consumption charges are charged.

    Explanation.— For removal of doubt, it is clarified that for the purposes of this section electricity consumption bill referred to in sub-section (2) means electricity bill inclusive of sales tax and all incidental charges.

    (3) Advance tax under this section shall not be collected from a person who produces a certificate from the Commissioner that his income during tax year is exempt from tax or that he has discharged advance tax liability for the tax year.

    (4) Under this section, —

    (a) in the case of a taxpayer other than a company, tax collected upto bill amount of three hundred and sixty thousand Rupees per annum shall be treated as minimum tax on the income of such persons and no refund shall be allowed;

    (b) in the case of a taxpayer other than a company, tax collected on monthly bill over and above thirty thousand rupees per month shall be adjustable; and

    (c) in the case of a company, tax collected shall be adjustable against tax liability.

    The FBR also updated rate of tax to be collected from domestic consumers of electricity under Section 235A of the Ordinance:

    The rate of tax to be collected under section 235A shall be—

    (i) 7.5 percent if the amount of monthly bill is Rs. 75,000 or more; and

    (ii) 0 percent the amount of monthly bill is less than Rs. 75,000.

    The text of Section 235A is as follow:

    235A. Domestic electricity consumption.- (1) There shall be collected advance tax at the rates specified in Division XIX of Part IV of the First Schedule on the amount of electricity bill of a domestic consumer.

    Explanation.— For removal of doubt, it is clarified that for the purposes of this section, electricity consumption bill referred to in sub-section (2) means electricity bill inclusive of sales tax and all incidental charges.

    (2) The person preparing electricity consumption bill shall charge advance tax under sub-section (1) in the manner electricity consumption charges are charged.

    (3) Tax collected under this section shall be adjustable against tax liability.

  • Manual tax collection to be eliminated by January: SBP

    Manual tax collection to be eliminated by January: SBP

    KARACHI: The manual collection of taxes will be eliminated by January 2021 and in this regard Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) and State Bank of Pakistan (SBP) have agreed on the timelines.

    The central bank in a report said that the timelines were agreed with FBR to gradually eliminate the manual tax collections by January 2021.

    “As a first step in this direction, the option of manual tax payment by corporate sector was eliminated from August 2020,” the SBP said.

    During 2019/2020, the SBP intensified efforts to digitize government receipts and payments. In order to bring the cost of digital tax payments and manual paper based tax payment, the nominal fee on digital payment of taxes on the tax payers was eliminated which would be absorbed by SBP.

    As the fee is nominal as compared to the agency commission, the SBP pays to agent banks for traditional paper based tax collection, the absorption of digital tax payment fee by SBP, will in fact reduce the net cost of tax collections for SBP.

    Further, in a significant development in this respect, timelines were agreed with FBR to gradually eliminate the manual tax collections by January 2021. As a first step in this direction, the option of manual tax payment by corporate sector was eliminated from August 2020.

    The SBP said that the Alternate Delivery Channels (ADC) system for collection of government taxes is functioning and robustly for different agencies of the federal government and Government of Punjab.

    The taxpayers pay their taxes through internet banking, mobile banking, ATMs and Over-the-Counters (OTC) facility of branches of commercial banks across the country.

    “Since its launch in March 2018, an aggregate amount of Rs.829 billion of government taxes and duties has been collected.”

    In order to promote digital payments of government taxes and duties, SBP with effect from January 1, 2020, eliminated the transaction fee for taxpayers using digital modes for payment of duties and taxes of federal and provincial governments.

    Further, to utilize the potential of ADCs system fully, SBP and FBR have agreed to gradually replace the manual payments of FBR’s taxes with the ADCs system starting with corporate taxpayers from first quarter (July – September) of 2020/2021.

    Accordingly, payments of FBR’s Taxes by AOPs/Partnerships and individuals will be shifted completely on the ADCs in the Second Quarter and Third Quarter of 2020/2021 respectively.

    Similarly, SBP is negotiating with other provincial governments to use this facility for their taxpayers and utilize the umbrella of ADCs for collection of their taxes and levies. Recently, SBP, M/s 1Link and Islamabad Capital Territory Administration (ICTA) have executed a tripartite agreement for extension of ADC system for collection of ICTA taxes and duties.

    While negotiation with Finance Department, Khyber Pakhtunkhwa are at advance stage for initiation of online collections, negotiation with other provincial governments will be initiated in FY21. The project will be broadly based on the model already implemented for FBR and Government of Punjab.

    After digitization and automation of Person to Government (P2G) payments, SBP and GoP are now working on digitization of Government to Person (G2P) payments.

    As a part of G2P digital payments, SBP and Pakistan Customs are working on digitization of Duty Drawbacks refunds to business in the first phase. After digitization of this process, Customs will generate and deliver a message to SBP for payment of refunds directly into the exporter’s bank account upon realization of foreign exchange proceeds of export consignment.

    The successful implementation of this project will be a milestone towards digitization of G2P payments and will help in the government’s initiatives for ease in doing business.

  • Date for filing income tax returns not to be extended: FBR

    Date for filing income tax returns not to be extended: FBR

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) on Saturday said that it will not further extend the date for filing income tax return for tax year 2020.

    A FBR spokesman said that the date for filing income tax return has already been extended up to December 08, 2020. “Therefore, no further date will be given beyond the extended timeline,” the spokesman added.

    The last date for filing income tax return for tax year 2020 was September 30, 2020. However, the FBR extended the date up to December 08, 2020.

    The spokesman said that the FBR had taken many measures to facilitate taxpayers. “An easy return form for tax year 2020 has been introduced. Taxpayers now submit their annual returns through wizard bases interface. Further, the returns can be submitted through smart phone application,” the spokesman added.

    The FBR has identified persons having taxable income but those are remained non-compliant in filing their returns. The FBR also identified those persons who have source of earnings but have not declared their true incomes.

    “The details of all such persons are available at the FBR’s database. These persons have been given last chance to declare their true income and assets to avoid legal action,” the spokesman said.