Tag: Federal Board of Revenue

The Federal Board of Revenue is Pakistan’s apex tax agency, overseeing tax collection and policies. Pakistan Revenue is committed to providing timely updates on the Federal Board of Revenue to its readers.

  • Rate of tax on sale to distributors, dealers and wholesalers

    Rate of tax on sale to distributors, dealers and wholesalers

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has updated rate of advance income tax on sale to distributors, dealers and wholesalers during tax year 2021 (July 01, 2020 to June 30, 2020).

    The FBR issued Income Tax Ordinance, 2001 (updated up to June 30, 2020) after incorporating amendment brought through Finance Act, 2020.

    The FBR updated the rate of advance income tax on sale to distributors, dealers and wholesalers under Section 236G of Income Tax Ordinance, 2001.

    The rate of collection of tax under section 236G shall be at 0.7 percent on sale of fertilizers and 0.1 percent on sale of other than fertilizers/

    The text of section 236G is as follow:

    Section 236G. Advance tax on sales to distributors, dealers and wholesalers.—

    (1) Every manufacturer or commercial importer of electronics, sugar, cement, iron and steel products, fertilizer, motorcycles, pesticides, cigarettes, glass, textile, beverages, paint or foam sector, at the time of sale to distributors, dealers and wholesalers, shall collect advance tax at the rate specified in Division XIV of Part IV of the First Schedule, from the aforesaid person to whom such sales have been made.

    (2) Credit for tax collected under sub-section (1) shall be allowed in computing the tax due by the distributor, dealer or wholesaler on the taxable income for the tax year in which the tax was collected.

  • FBR issues procedure for oversight committee to settle cases

    FBR issues procedure for oversight committee to settle cases

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) on Friday issued procedure for assessment oversight committee for resolving cases of settlement filed against assessment notices.

    The FBR issued SRO 1184(I)/2020 to notify the rules. Previously, the FBR issued draft rules through SRO 957(I)/2020 dated October 02, 2020 to seek input from stakeholders.

    The FBR introduced Rule 231CA to the Income Tax Rules, 2002 for procedures for assessment oversight committee that shall apply to all cases of settlement filed under Section 122D (agreed assessment in certain cases) of Income Tax Ordinance, 2001.

    As per the rule, a settlement application shall be made electronically by the applicant in person or by his authorized representative, under Section 122D for agreed assessment of the committee on IRS web portal.

    A settlement application shall be preferred to the committee after the date of service of the notice issued under sub section (9) of Section 122 of the Ordinance and before finalization of assessment.

    The commissioner shall not conclude assessment proceedings under section 122 if an application, made against the notice issued under sub section (9) of section 122, lies pending before the committee.

    The committee, after examination of the contents of an application submitted by an applicant and facts stated therein and on scrutiny of requisitioned record, if any, shall afford opportunity of being heard to the applicant in writing.

    The committee shall finalize the applications filed under section 122D of the Ordinance within thirty days of receipt of application or within an extended period of sixty days, for reasons to be recorded in writing by the committee.

  • FBR issues rules to finalize return forms by January 31

    FBR issues rules to finalize return forms by January 31

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) on Friday amended rules under which annual income tax return form will be available on January 31 every year following the financial year to which the return relates.

    The FBR issued SRO 1185(I)/2020 to amend Income Tax Rules 2002. Previously, the FBR issued SRO 1041(I)/2020 dated October 13, 2020 to notify draft rules and invited suggestions from the stakeholders.

    The FBR introduced Rule 34A for making it mandatory that the annual income tax return form shall be available by January 31 every on IRIS portal and ready for filing by taxpayers.

    The text of the new rule 34A is as:

    34A. Time limit for notifying income tax return form:

    (1) This rule shall apply for the purpose of setting timelines in respect of various steps involved in notifying income tax return forms for a tax year.

    (2) The return form specified in sub rule (2) of rule 34 shall be notified for suggestions from all persons likely to be affected thereby on or before the first day of December of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates by observing following timelines:

    (a) Inland Revenue Policy Wing shall identify the legal amendments to be incorporated in income tax return forms by thirty-first day of August of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates;

    (b) preparation of change request form (CRF) shall be finalized by Inland Revenue Policy Wing and Information Technology Wing, in consultation with PRAL, by the fifteenth day of September of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates;

    (c) analysis and scrutiny of the change request form (CRF) by Chief Income Tax Policy and Chief Business Domain Team shall be conducted by sixteenth day of September of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates and the same shall be submitted to Member Inland Revenue Policy for approval on the same day;

    (d) PRAL shall complete configuration and development of the approved CRF by thirty first day of October of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates; and

    (e) User Acceptance Test (UAT) of the amended return forms on testing environment shall be finalized by Inland Revenue Policy Wing and Information Technology Wing, in consultation with PRAL, by fifteenth day of November of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates and the same shall be submitted to Member Inland Revenue Policy for approval on the same day.

    (3) The return form shall be remain available on the portal for suggestion till seventh day of January of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates.

    (4) The final return form shall be notified on or before the thirty first day of January of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates by observing following timelines:

    (a) Inland Revenue Policy Wing and Information Technology Wing shall review the suggestions received from stakeholders by twelfth day of January of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates;

    (b) a new change request form, if required, shall be finalized by Inland Revenue Policy Wing and Information Technology Wing, in consultation with PRAL, by 15th day of January of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates and the same shall be approved by Member Inland Revenue;

    (c) PRAL shall complete configuration and development of the approved CRF by 20th day of January of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates;

    (d) User Acceptance Test (UAT) of the final return forms on testing environment shall be finalized by Inland Revenue Policy Wing and Information Technology Wing, in consultation with PRAL, by 25th day of January of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates and the same shall be submitted to Member Inland Revenue Policy for approval;

    (e) final income tax return forms shall be available on IRIS by the thirty day of January of the financial year following the financial year to which the return relates;

    (f) in case, any further amendments are made in the financial year to which the return relates that have an impact on the finally notified income tax return forms referred to a clause (e), such amendments shall also be incorporated accordingly; and

    (g) notwithstanding anything contained in this rule, the time so specified may, if requested by the Member Inland Revenue Policy, be extended by the Board to such extent and subject to such conditions and limitations as it may deep proper.

  • FBR amends rules for filing, processing of refund claims

    FBR amends rules for filing, processing of refund claims

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) on Thursday amended Sales Tax Rules, 2006 for process and claims of refunds by commercial exporters.

    In this regard the FBR issued SRO 1172(I)/2020 to make changes in the Sales Tax Rules, 2006 regarding filing and processing of refund claims.

    Following rules have been amended:

    Rule 28. Filing and processing of refund claims.−(1) For all the refund claims under section 10 and 8B of the Act, for the tax period July, 2019 and onwards, the data provided in the monthly return shall be treated as data in support of refund claim and no separate electronic data shall be required. The amount specified in column 29 of the return, as prescribed in the form STR-7, shall be considered as amount claimed for the purposes of claim under section 10 of the Act, once the return has been submitted along with all prescribed annexures thereof:

    Provided that, in case of claims arising from zero-rated supplies including exports, the claimant shall be able to submit his return without Annex H and the same may be filed separately at any time but not later than one hundred and twenty days of submission of the return without Annex-H. The date of submission of Annex-H shall be considered as the date of filing of refund claim. In other cases of refund, the date of submission of form STR-7A shall be considered as date of submission of refund claim and the same shall be filed within one hundred and twenty days of submission of relevant return:

    Provided further that in case of a commercial exporter, the claim shall be filed in the aforesaid manner within one hundred and twenty days, either after submission of the return without Annex-H, or after the date of issuance of BCA, whichever is later:

    Provided also that the period of one hundred and twenty days, as aforesaid, may be extended for a period not more than sixty days, by the Commissioner having jurisdiction, if the claimant so requests, thereby providing reasons justifying the delay in submission of claim:

    Following new proviso has been added through the SRO:

    “Provided also that if a claimant is registered as commercial exporter and exporting same state of goods, the period of one hundred and eighty days shall be reckoned from date of filing of return or the date of issuance of BCA, whichever is later.”

    (2) The registered person claiming refund in the aforesaid manner shall maintain and keep all the paper documents relating to the refund claim, such as invoices, credit notes, debit notes, goods declarations, bank credit advice, banking instruments etc. in his office and may not submit the same along with the refund to the concerned Regional Tax Office or Large Taxpayers’ Unit. The same shall be presented to the said offices if so required by the officer-in-charge for processing of the refund claim or post-refund scrutiny.

    Rule 39D. Filing and Processing of refund claims.−The data provided in the monthly return shall be treated as data in support of refund claim and no separate electronic data shall be required to be provided. The amount specified in column 29 of the return, as prescribed in the form STR-7, shall be considered as amount claimed, once the return has been submitted along with all prescribed annexes thereof:

    The first proviso has been amended through the SRO 1172(I)/2020:

    Provided that the claimant may submit his return without Annex-H and the same may be filed separately at any time but not later than one hundred and twenty days or as the case may be not later than one hundred and eighty days for commercial exporters of submission of the return without Annex-H. The date of submission of Annex – H shall be considered as the date of filing of refund claims.

    Provided further that the period of one hundred and twenty days, as aforesaid, may be extended for a period not exceeding sixty days, by the Commissioner having jurisdiction, for reasons to be recorded in writing on the basis of an application made by the claimant.

  • Correction in computerized CVT payment receipt allowed

    Correction in computerized CVT payment receipt allowed

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has allowed correction in computerized payment receipt (CPR) for capital value tax (CVT). In this regard, the FBR amended the procedure.

    The FBR issued an addendum on Thursday to the e-procedure that was notified on December 30, 2019. Previously, the FBR granted correction in CPR for income tax, sales tax and federal excise duty.

    However, through the addendum the FBR said correction of CVT CPR shall only be allowed in respect of CVT paid on immovable property situated within territorial limits of Islamabad Capital Territory.

    Further, the FBR said that heads of account (NAM) shall not be changed in the CPR except for CVT paid on immovable property situated within territorial limits of Islamabad Capital Territory.

  • FBR sets up departmental enquiry committee

    FBR sets up departmental enquiry committee

    ISLAMABAD: A departmental enquiry committee of the Federal Boar of Revenue (FBR) has been constituted to ascertain admissibility of financial benefits for officials removed from services but reinstated on court orders.

    An office order issued on Thursday stated that the departmental enquiry committee of FBR had been constituted to ascertain admissibility of financial benefits, during the period of dismissal / removal from service, after reinstatement of officers/officials back into service as per Appellate/court orders.

    Following persons are in the committee:

    Member (Admin), FBR HQ, Islamabad: chairman

    DFA, FBR (HQ), Islamabad: member

    Chief Management (Customs/IR) concerned: member

    Secretary litigation concerned: member

    Secretary management (customs/IR) concerned: member

    The committee shall have the following terms of reference:

    To examine cases of reinstatement into service after dismissal/removal; in light of FR-54

    To make appropriate recommendations under the Rules

  • Rate of advance tax on sale, purchase of immovable properties

    Rate of advance tax on sale, purchase of immovable properties

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has updated rate of advance tax on sale and purchase of immovable properties during tax year 2021 (July 01, 2020 to June 30, 2021).

    The FBR issued Income Tax Ordinance, 2001 (Updated up to June 30, 2020) after incorporating amendments introduced through Finance Act, 2020.

    The FBR updated the rate of tax to be collected under section 236C of Income Tax Ordinance, 2001. The advance tax rate shall be one percent of the gross amount of the consideration received.

    The rate of advance tax shall be two percent on a person for not appearing on Active Taxpayers List (ATL).

    Following is the text of Section 236C of the Ordinance:

    236C. Advance Tax on sale or transfer of immovable Property.—(1) Any person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer of any immovable property shall at the time of registering, recording or attesting the transfer shall collect from the seller or transferor advance tax at the rate specified in Division X of Part IV of the First Schedule:

    Explanation,—For removal of doubt, it is clarified that the person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer includes person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer for local authority, housing authority, housing society, co-operative society and registrar of properties.

    Provided that this sub-section shall not apply to a seller, being the dependant of a Shaheed belonging to Pakistan Armed Forces or a person who dies while in the service of the Pakistan Armed Forces or the service of Federal or Provincial Government, in respect of first sale of immovable property acquired from or allotted by the Federal Government or Provincial Government or any authority duly certified by the official allotment authority, and the property acquired or allotted is in recognition of or for services rendered by the Shaheed or the person who dies in service.

    (2) The Advance tax collected under sub-section (1) shall be adjustable.

    Provided that where immovable property referred to in sub-section (1) is acquired and disposed of within the same tax year, the tax collected under this section shall be minimum tax.

    (3) Advance tax under sub-section (1) shall not be collected if the immovable property is held for a period exceeding four years.

    The FBR also updated rate of advance tax on purchase of immovable properties. The rate of tax to be collected under section 236K shall be one percent of the fair market value.

    The advance tax rate shall be two percent on a person for not appearing on Active Taxpayers List (ATL).

    The text of Section 236K of Income Tax Ordinance, 2001:

    236K. Advance tax on purchase or transfer of immovable property.—(1)Any person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer of any immovable property shall at the time of registering, recording or attesting the transfer shall collect from the purchaser or transferee advance tax at the rate specified in Division XVIII of Part IV of the First Schedule.

    Explanation,—For removal of doubt, it is clarified that the person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer includes person responsible for registering, recording or attesting transfer for local authority, housing authority, housing society, co-operative society and registrar of properties.

    (2) The advance tax collected under sub-section (1) shall be adjustable.

    (3) Any person responsible for collecting payments in installments for purchase or allotment of any immovable property where the transfer is to be effected after making payment of all installments, shall at the time of collecting installments collect from the allotee or transferee advance tax at the rate specified in Division XVIII of Part IV of the First Schedule.

    (4) Nothing contained in this section shall apply to a scheme introduced by the Federal Government, or Provincial Government or an Authority established under a Federal or Provincial law for expatriate Pakistanis:

    “Provided that the mode of payment by the expatriate Pakistanis in the said scheme or schemes shall be in the foreign exchange remitted from outside Pakistan through normal banking channels.”

  • Revenue grows by 3.8 percent; FBR collects Rs1,337 billion in four months

    Revenue grows by 3.8 percent; FBR collects Rs1,337 billion in four months

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has achieved 3.8 percent growth in revenue collection during first four months of the current fiscal year, a statement said on Monday.

    The FBR collected Rs1,337 billion during July – October 2020/2021 as compared with Rs1,288 billion collected in the corresponding period of the last fiscal year.

    The breakup of the collection revealed the FBR collected Rs470 billion as income tax, Rs643 billion as sales tax / federal excise duty and Rs81 billion as customs duty during first four months of the current fiscal year.

    The gross collection during the first four months was at Rs1,400 billion as compared with Rs1,323 billion in the corresponding period of the last fiscal year.

    The FBR collected Rs333 billion during the month of October 2020 as compared with Rs325 billion in the same month of the last year, showing only 2.46 percent growth.

    The FBR said that it had issued refunds worth Rs128 billion during first four months of the current fiscal year as compared with Rs52 billion in the same months of the last year.

    The FBR issued Rs15 billion in October 2020 as compared with Rs4.5 billion issued in the same month of the last year. The FBR said that despite significant increase in issuance of refunds the collection of revenue was higher in the month of October 2020. The higher amount of refund was released in order to improve economic activities.

    The collection of revenue at import stage fell by 2 percent. However, the collection from domestic sources increased by 13 percent.

    The FBR said that during the anti-smuggling increased significantly during the first four months of the current fiscal year. In the anti-smuggling activities, the authorities seized goods worth Rs21.48 billion during the period under review as compared with Rs13.4 billion in the corresponding period of the last fiscal year.

  • FBR issues criteria for granting Authorized Economic Operator status

    FBR issues criteria for granting Authorized Economic Operator status

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has issued eligibility conditions and criteria for grant of Authorized Economic Operator (AEO) status.

    The FBR issued SRO 1114(I)/2020 to notify rules related to Authorized Economic Operators. The economic operator means any entity like a legal person, undertaking or establishment which in the course of business is involved in activities covered under the Customs Act, 1969 or rules made thereunder.

    Following are the eligibility conditions and criteria for grant of AEO status under Rule 744 of Customs Rules 2001.

    1. Eligibility conditions and criteria for grant of AEO status.-(l) Any economic operator applying for AEO status must fulfill the following criteria in order to qualify for an AEO authorization-

    (a) have an appropriate record of compliance with customs requirements;

    (b) have a satisfactory system of managing commercial and, where appropriate, transport records, which allows appropriate customs controls;

    (c) demonstrate, where appropriate, proven financial solvency;

    (d) practical standards of competence or professional qualifications directly related to the activity carried out; and

    (e) maintenance of appropriate security and safety standards.

    (2) Eligibility to apply for AEO certificate-

    (a) any entity involved in the international supply chain that undertakes Customs related activity in Pakistan can apply for AEO status. Such entity may include exporters, importers, logistic providers such as carriers, airlines, freight forwarders, etc., custodians or terminal operators, Customs House Agents and Warehouse Owners, port operators, authorized couriers, stevedores etc. In case of importers and exporters, at the time of filing of AEO application, annual turnover of the business must be 2.5 million USD or above while applying for gold or platinum status;

    (b) businesses that are not involved in Customs related work or activities will not be entitled to apply. Thus banks, insurance companies, consultants and the like categories of businesses shall not be eligible for AEO status;

    (c) application for AEO status will only cover the legal entity of the applicant and shall not automatically apply to a group of companies;

    (d) there is no provision to grant AEO status to specific site, division or branch of legal entity of the applicant. The application must cover all the activities and locations of the legal entity involved in the international supply chain and the prescribed criteria will be applied across all those activities and locations;

    (e) in order to apply -for AEO status, the office of the applicant must be established in Pakistan. For this purpose, the applicant should provide evidence which may include-

    (i) NTN and STRN certificates;

    (ii) a certificate of registration issued by the Registrar of Companies;

    (iii) details of places and locations where goods are being handled, e.g. loading, unloading, storage etc., in the course of supply to or from international supply chain; and

    (iv) proof that the business has its own accounts;

    (f) the applicant should have business activities for at least three financial years preceding the date of application. However, in exceptional cases, on the basis of physical verification of internal controls of a newly established business entity, the Director or Collector AEO may consider it for certification;

    (g) an AEO status shall apply only to the legal entity applying for such status in its own capacity and covering only its role in the international supply chain, and will not confer similar status on its business partners or clients who will need to apply separately for that status;

    (3) Legal Compliance-

    (a) an entity must have a clean tax profile which means that there should be no adjudged arrears during last three financial years involving serious violations of law including fraud, forgery, outright smuggling, illegal removal of goods, illegal claim of duty drawback or sales tax refunds, illegal availing of tax exemptions;

    (b) there should be no case wherein prosecution has been launched or is being contemplated against the applicant or its senior management;

    (c) if the quantum of disputed duty demanded or drawback demanded or sought to be denied, as adjudged under the Act other than those mentioned in clause (a) and (b) during the last three financial years, is less than ten percent of the total duty paid and drawback claimed during the same period, a review would be taken of the nature of cases and decision for eligibility may be taken by the Director or Collector AEO after taking into account all aspects and circumstances of the disputed cases.

    Explanation: for clauses (a), (b) and (c) the cases where the proceedings have been dropped or decided in favour of the applicant by the adjudicating or appellate authorities shall not be considered;

    (d) where applicable, the applicant has satisfactory procedures in place for the handling of imports and exports connected to prohibitions and restrictions including measures to distinguish goods subject to the prohibitions or restrictions from other goods and measures to ensure compliance with those prohibitions and restrictions;

    (e) an applicant will also need to demonstrate that he has-

    (i) procedures in place to identify and disclose any irregularities or errors to the Customs authorities or, where appropriate, other regulatory bodies; and

    (ii) taken appropriate remedial action when irregularities or errors are identified;

    (f) once an error has been identified, the applicant is expected to take steps to ensure that they do not happen again or, at least, to ensure that they are immediately rectified if they do arise. Failure to take such steps could count against applicant;

    (g) in case of applicant being a sole proprietorship, the criteria laid down in clauses (a) to (f) shall be considered to be fulfilled if, over the last three years, the applicant and where applicable the person in charge of the applicant’s customs matters have not committed any serious infringement or repeated infringements of customs legislation and taxation rules and have had no record of serious criminal offences relating to their economic activity;

    (h) in case of applicant not being a sole proprietorship, the criterion laid down in clauses (a) to (f) shall be considered to be fulfilled where, over the last, three years, none of the following persons has committed a serious infringements of customs legislation and taxation rules or has had a record of serious criminal offences relating to his economic activity;

    (i) the applicant;

    (ii) the persons in charge of the applicant company or exercising control over its management; and

    (iii) the person in charge of the applicant’s customs matters:

    Provided that the criterion referred to in sub-rules (a) to (f) may be considered to be fulfilled where the regulatory directorate or collectorate considers an infringement to be of minor importance, in relation to the number or size of the related operations, and the customs authority has no doubt as to the good faith of the applicant;

    (i) in case the applicant entity is established for less than three years as a result of a corporate re-organization, the customs authorities shall consider the customs activities performed by the pre-existing company provided that they are unchanged;

    (j) the applicant or the person in charge of the applicant’s customs matters complies with one of the following practical standards of competence-

    (i) a proven practical experience of a minimum of three years in customs matters; and

    (ii) the applicant or the person in charge of the applicant’s customs matters has successfully completed training covering customs legislation consistent with and relevant to the extent of his or her involvement in customs related activities, provided by any of the following, namely:-

    (A) a customs training authority providing such qualification;

    (B) a national or foreign educational establishment recognized by the customs authorities, for the purposes of providing such qualification; and

    (C) a national or foreign professional or trade association recognized by the customs authorities for the purpose of providing such qualification;

    (k) it should be noted that the person in charge of the applicant’s customs matters can be an employee of the applicant or a contracted person. The applicant has to prove that the contracted person is actually the one in charge of the applicant’s customs matters;

    (l) in case of outsourced customs activities, it is sufficient that either the applicant, the applicant’s employee in charge of customs matters or contracted person fulfils the criterion. If the applicant outsources its customs activities to more than one contracted person, the criterion must be fulfilled by all of them; and

    (m) it should be noted that when the applicant has an internal office or department involved in customs matters which allows the supervision and control on the customs formalities that have been outsourced, the criterion can be fulfilled by the applicant.

    (4) Managing commercial and (where appropriate) transport records.-

    (a) the applicant must have a satisfactory system of managing commercial and, where appropriate, transport records. To enable the regulatory directorate or collectorate to establish that the applicant indeed has such a system, the applicant shall-

    (i) maintain an accounting system consistent with Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) or International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) which facilitates audit-based Customs control;

    (ii) have an administrative set up which corresponds to the type and size of business and which is suitable for the management of the flow of goods and have internal controls capable of detecting illegal or irregular transactions;

    (iii) wherever applicable, have satisfactory procedures in place for the handling of licenses and authorizations connected to export or import;

    (iv) have satisfactory procedures in place for archiving of the company’s records and information, and also for protection against the loss of information;

    (v) ensure that employees are made aware of the need to inform the Customs authorities whenever compliance difficulties are discovered and establish suitable contacts to inform the Customs authorities of such occurrences;

    (vi) have satisfactory procedures for verifying the accuracy of Customs declarations; and

    (vii) have appropriate information technology security measures to protect the applicant’s computer system from unauthorized intrusion and to secure the applicant’s documentation;

    (b) allow the customs authority physical access to its accounting systems and where applicable, to its commercial and transport records; and

    (c) allow the customs authority electronic access to its accounting systems and where applicable to its commercial and transport records where those systems or records are kept electronically;

    (d) have satisfactory procedures in place for the archiving of its records and information and for protection against the loss of information; and

    (e) have appropriate security measures in place to protect the applicant’s computer system from un-authorised intrusion and to secure the applicant’s documentation.

    (5) Financial solvency

    (a) financial solvency shall mean a good financial standing which is sufficient to fulfill the commitments of the applicant, vyith due regard to the characteristics of the type of business activity. Generally, consistent profitability of a business (importers or exporters), having annual turnover of 2.5 million USD or above, will be considered financially solvent, however, there may be exceptions in certain cases when sisters companies operate and consistent profitability of one business provides financial support to the related business which might not be profitable directly, but it contributes to the profitability of the other related business. For instance, a marketing company and a manufacturing company can operate as sister concerns in such a way that the marketing company only incurs expenditure while promoting sales of the manufacturing company and the considerable or consistent profits made by the manufacturing company, then, render both sister-concern companies as financial solvent. Thus, in case of group of companies, over all model of operations and profitability needs to be observed while deciding the condition of financial solvency;

    (b) the applicant’s financial solvency shall be deemed to have been met if his solvency can be proven for the last three years. If the applicant has been established for less than three years, his financial solvency shall be judged on the basis of records and information that are available;

    (c) evidence of financial solvency can be provided through any of the following, namely:-

    (i) a statement from the applicant’s auditors or an audited report;

    (ii) a copy of their finalised accounts if the accounts have not been audited;

    (iii) evidence from a bank or financial institution;

    (iv) a guarantee from a parent company regarding financial support;

    (v) a list of any personal assets that are used to support the solvency of the business;

    (vi) official records of insolvencies, liquidations and administrations;

    (vii) the record for the payment of customs duties and all other duties, taxes or charges which are collected on or in connection with the importation or exportation of goods during the last three years;

    (viii) the published financial statements and balance sheets of the applicant covering the last three years in order to analyse the applicant’s ability to pay their legal debts;

    (ix) draft accounts or management accounts, in particular any interim reports and the latest cash flow, balance sheet and profit and loss forecasts approved by the directors or partners or sole proprietor, in particular where the latest published financial statements do not provide the necessary evidence of the current financial position or the applicant has a newly established business;

    (x) the applicant’s business case where the applicant is financed by a loan from a financial institution and confirmation from that institution;

    (xi) the conclusions of credit rating agencies or credit protection associations;

    (xii) other evidence which the applicant may provide, for example a guarantee from a parent (or other group) company that demonstrates that the applicant is financially solvent; and

    (xiii) higher annual turnovers with consistent net profits will be an important indication that a business is financially viable and solvent; and

    (d) an applicant must be financially solvent during the three financial years preceding the date of application. The applicant should not be listed currently as insolvent, or in liquidation or bankruptcy. Further, the applicant should not have defaulted in payment of due Customs duties during the past three years. The applicants must submit an undertaking regarding its solvency and a Solvency Certificate issued by the Statutory Auditor of the applicant.

    (6) Safety and security- The applicant must have in place appropriate internal controls and measures to ensure safety and security of applicant’s business and supply chain, in addition to any specific legal requirements that may be applicable to the business. In order to satisfy the requirements of AEO status, the applicant shall need to ensure security of procedures, cargo, conveyances, premises, personnel and business partners. The applicant’s security and safety standards shall be considered to be appropriate if the following conditions are fulfilled, namely:-

    (a) Procedural Security-

    (i) in order to ensure security of the international supply chain, the applicant must have in place appropriate internal controls and measures to ensure safety and security of procedures relating to applicant’s business and his supply chain. With this view, following criteria should be fulfilled by the applicant;

    (ii) the applicant must develop and maintain a security policy and procedure manual containing detailed guidelines on_ procedures to be followed to preserve the integrity of the cargo while in custody, during loading and unloading from transport conveyance and during transport. The manual should also stipulate how seals are to be controlled and affixed to cargo and transport conveyances;

    (iii) security measures must be in place to ensure the integrity and security of processes relevant to the transportation, handling, and storage of cargo in the supply chain;

    (iv) proper documentation of management procedure must be in place to ensure that all documentation used in the clearing of cargo is legible, complete, accurate and protected against the exchange, loss of introduction of erroneous information;

    (v) procedure must be in place to ensure that information received from business partners is reported accurately and timely as well as declared in the time limit regulated by Customs; and

    (vi) procedure must be in place to ensure that-

    (A) import and export cargo are reconciled against the information on the bill of lading;

    (B) the weights, labels, marks and piece count of the import or export cargo are accurately indicated;

    (C) import and export cargo are verified against purchase or delivery orders;

    (D) drivers delivering or receiving cargo are positively identified before cargo is received or released; and

    (E) all shortages, overages, and other significant discrepancies or anomalies must be resolved or to be investigated appropriately;

    (b) premises security, in order to ensure security of the international supply chain, the applicant must ensure that the buildings to be used in connection with the operations to be covered by the certificate are constructed of materials which resist unlawful entry and provide protection against unlawful intrusion. In addition, the applicant must ensure that appropriate access control measures are in place to prevent unauthorized access to loading, unloading areas and cargo areas. The following criteria shall be fulfilled by the applicant, namely:-

    (i) buildings must be secure against unlawful entry;

    (ii) all gates, fences and windows must be secured with locking devices or alternative access monitoring or control measures;

    (iii) authorized personnel must control the issuance of locks and keys;

    (iv) adequate internal and external lighting must be provided especially for entrances and exits, cargo handling and storage areas, fence lines and parking areas;

    (v) gates through which vehicles or personnel enter or exit must be manned, monitored or otherwise controlled. Vehicles accessing restricted areas must be parked in approved area and .their license plate numbers furnished to Customs upon request;

    (vi) only properly identified and authorized persons, vehicles and goods may be permitted access;

    (vii) access to document or cargo storage areas may be restricted;

    (viii) there should be appropriate security systems for access control;

    (ix) restricted areas should be clearly identified;

    (x) integrity of structures and systems must be periodically inspected;

    (xi) perimeter fencing should enclose the areas around cargo handling and storage facilities;

    (xii) clear demarcation within a cargo handling structure should be created to segregate domestic, international, high value and hazardous cargo;

    (xiii) the number of gates should be kept to the minimum necessary for proper access and safety;

    (xiv) unauthorized vehicles should be prohibited from parking in or adjacent, to cargo handling and storage areas;

    (xv) a large manufacturer might have to have a perimeter wall or fence, security guards, and CCTV; and

    (xvi) cameras etc. while for a customs agent operating from a single room in a building with locks on doors, windows and filing cabinets it may be sufficient to have a detailed procedure for access control including responsibilities;

    (c) Cargo security- in order to ensure security of the international supply chain, the applicant must have in place appropriate measures for the handling of goods which include protection against the introduction, exchange or loss of any material and tampering with cargo units. The following criteria shall be fulfilled by the applicant, namely:-

    (i) only properly identified and authorized persons should have access to the cargo;

    (ii) integrity of cargo should be ensured by permanent monitoring or keeping in a safe, locked area;

    (iii) all seals must meet the international standards for high security seals, for containerized cargo, only PAS or ISO 17712 seals shall be used, however in case of loose cargo, security seals compatible with international standards shall be used;

    (iv) the integrity of container seals should be checked by the authorized person by following the procedure prescribed in the security policy manual;

    (v) only authorized personnel should distribute container seals and safeguard their appropriate and legitimate use;

    (vi) when appropriate to the type of cargo container used, a seven-point inspection process is recommended: front wall, left side, right side, floor, ceiling or roof, inside or outside doors, outside or undercarriage;

    (vii) appropriate procedures should be laid down on measures to be taken when an unauthorized access or tampering is discovered;

    (viii) goods should be uniformly marked or stored in designated areas and procedures should exist to weigh and tally them and also to compare these against transport documents, purchase or sales orders and customs documents;

    (ix) internal control procedures should exist when discrepancies or any irregularities are discovered;

    (x) there must be designated areas for all stages. Goods shall not be left unsupervised outside of their designated areas; and

    (xi) if the company uses container seals, they must be stored, handled and fixed appropriately. They shall be stored under lock and key, removal recorded, and fixed by two persons.

    (d) Conveyance security- In order to ensure security of the international supply chain, the applicant must ensure that the conveyances to be used in connection with the operations to be covered by the certificate are handled in a manner which ensures security of the cargo. With this view, the applicant shall

    (i) ensure to the extent possible that all conveyances used for the transportation of cargo within the supply chain are capable of being effectively secured;

    (ii) ensure to the extent possible that all operators of conveyances used for transport of cargo are trained to maintain the security of the conveyance and the cargo at all times while in its custody;

    (iii) require operators to report actual or suspicious incident to designated security department staff of the applicant company as well as to maintain records of these reports, which should be available to the regulatory directorate or collectorate;

    (iv) ensure that potential places of concealment of illegal goods on conveyances are regularly inspected;

    (v) ensure that transporters make sure that conveyance integrity is maintained while the conveyance is en-route transporting cargo to export and import points or import or transit containers by utilizing a tracking and monitoring activity log or records;

    (vi) ensure that pre-determined routes are identified by the dispatcher, and procedures must consist of random route checks along with documenting and verifying the length of time between the loading point or trailer pickup and the delivery destinations;

    (vii) ensure that drivers must notify the dispatcher of any route delays due to weather, traffic and re-routing; and

    (viii) ensure that the management of transporters must perform a documented, periodic, and random verification process to ensure the logs are maintained and conveyance tracking and monitoring procedures are being followed and enforced;

    (e) Personnel security: In order to secure the international supply chain, the applicant must conduct, as far as possible, security screening of prospective employees to be employed in security sensitive positions, and carry out periodic background checks. With this view, following criteria should be fulfilled by the applicant, namely:-

    (i) all reasonable precautions must be taken when recruiting new staff to verify that they are not previously convicted of security-related, Customs or other criminal offences;

    (ii) periodic background checks must be conducted on employees working in security sensitive positions;

    (iii) employee identification procedures should require all employees to carry proper identification that uniquely identifies the employee and organization;

    (iv) procedures to identify, record and deal with unauthorized or unidentified persons, such as photo identification and sign-in registers for visitors etc. must be ensured at all points of entry; and

    (v) procedures must be in place to expeditiously remove identification and access to premises and information for employees whose employment is terminated;

    (f) Business partner security: In order to secure the international supply chain, the applicant must have implemented measures to ensure a clear identification of his business partners. With this view, following criteria should be fulfilled by the applicant, namely:-

    (i) the applicant must have written and verifiable process, including the capability of financial soundness and compliance with the safety requirement set by the contracts as well as the capability of detection and correction of safety defects, for the selection of business partners;

    (ii) for those business partners having AEO certification, the applicant must get those business partners’ copies of certification;

    (iii) for non-AEO partners, the applicant must get written confirmation of meeting AEO equivalent security criteria. Such business partners must have one of the following written documents demonstrating their compliance with security criteria, namely:-

    (A) contractual document;

    (B) a completed self-assessment security questionnaire from the applicant;

    (C) a written statement from the business partner demonstrating their compliance with AEO security criteria provided under these rules;.

    (D) senior business partner officer attesting to compliance; and

    (E) documents from the business partners demonstrating their compliance with and equivalent and accredited security program administered by a foreign Customs authority; and

    (iv) periodic reviews of business partner’s processes and facilities must be conducted based on risk, and must maintain the security standards required by the applicant; and

    (g) Security Training and Threat Awareness,-In order to secure the international supply chain, the applicant must ensure that its concerned employees actively participate in security awareness programmes. With this view, following criteria should be fulfilled by the applicant, namely:-

    (i) the applicant should ensure that-

    (A) a threat awareness program is established and maintained for employees to foster awareness of the threat at each point in the supply chain;

    (B) employees are aware of the procedures the company has in place to address a situation and how to report it; and

    (C) specific training is offered to assist employees in maintaining cargo integrity, recognizing internal conspiracies and protecting access controls;

    (ii) supply chain security training of employees must include the following items, namely:-

    (A) security policy of the company;

    (B) potential risk to internal security of the company;

    (C) maintaining cargo security;

    (D) access control measures of the company;

    (E) identifying and reporting suspicious cargo and personnel; and

    (F) conveyance management and cargo security for conveyance management personnel;

    (iii) Records of security training must be maintained and made available for verification by the AEO Team and the Customs.

    (7) Risk based Management Systemfa)

    (a) a risk based management system shall be in place, which shall allow for-

    (i) a continual cycle of identifying needs or requirements;

    (ii) evaluating the best means for complying with the requirements;

    (iii) implementing a managed process for applying the selected management actions;

    (iv) monitoring the performance of the system; and

    (v) maintaining evidence of the application of processes used to meet business objectives, and identify functional or business improvement opportunities, including reporting mechanisms on gaps, incidental mistakes and possible structural errors;

    (b) above aspects shall be in place within the framework of complying with the legal and regulatory requirements to which the organization subscribes or is required to comply;

    (c) risk and threat assessment should cover all risks relevant for AEO status, keeping in mind the role of the economic operator in the supply chain and shall include,-namely:

    (i) security and safety threats to premises and goods;

    (ii) fiscal threats;

    (iii) reliability of information related to customs operations and logistics of goods;

    (iv) visible audit trail and prevention and detection of fraud and errors; and

    (v) contractual arrangements for business partners in the supply chain; and

    (d) the risk and threat assessment for security and safety purposes should cover all the premises that are relevant to the economic operator’s customs related activities.

  • Tax Year 2021: rate of tax on cash withdrawal from banks

    Tax Year 2021: rate of tax on cash withdrawal from banks

    ISLAMABAD: Federal Board of Revenue (FBR) has updated rate of income tax to be deducted at the time of cash withdrawal from banks during tax year 2021 (July 01, 2020 to June 30, 2021).

    The FBR issued Income Tax Ordinance, 2001 (updated up to June 30, 2020) after incorporating amendments brought through Finance Act, 2020.

    The FBR updated the rate of tax to be deducted under section 231A of Income Tax Ordinance shall be 0.6 percent of the cash amount withdrawn, for the person whose name is not appearing in the active taxpayers’ list.

    The text of Section 231A is as follow:

    231A. Cash withdrawal from a bank.—(1) Every banking company shall deduct tax at the rate specified in Division VI of Part IV of the First Schedule, if the payment for cash withdrawal, or the sum total of the payments for cash withdrawal in a day, exceeds fifty thousand rupees.

    “Explanation.- For removal of doubt, it is clarified that the said fifty thousand rupees shall be aggregate withdrawals from all the bank accounts in a single day.”

    The FBR also updated the rate of tax to be deducted under section 231AA shall be at the rate of 0.6 percent of the transactions for the person whose name is not appearing in the active taxpayers’ list.

    Following is the text of Section 231AA of the Ordinance is:

    231AA. Advance tax on transactions in bank.— (1) Every banking company, non-banking financial institution, exchange company or any authorized dealer of foreign exchange shall collect advance tax at the time of sale against cash of any instrument, including Demand Draft, Pay Order, CDR, STDR, SDR, RTC, or any other instrument of bearer nature or on receipt of cash on cancellation of any of these instruments.

    (2) Every banking company, non-banking financial institution, exchange company or any authorized dealer of foreign exchange shall collect advance tax at the time of transfer of any sum against cash through online transfer, telegraphic transfer, mail transfer or any other mode of electronic transfer.

    (3) The advance tax under this section shall be collected at the rate specified in Division VIA of Part IV of the First Schedule, where the sum total of payments for transactions mentioned in sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) as the case may be, exceed twenty-five thousand rupees in a day.